RTP Ltd. is described as a domestic company incorporated in May 2020 and taxed at 30% under normal provisions. However, the question allows additional depreciation under Section 32(1)(iia), which is available only to manufacturing companies, thereby implicitly classifying RTP Ltd. as a domestic manufacturing company.
Given this implicit assumption, is it correct to evaluate the option of Section 115BAB (concessional tax regime for domestic manufacturing companies) even though the question does not expressly state that RTP Ltd. is engaged in manufacturing?
For academic and examination purposes, should students:
Treat the allowance of additional depreciation as sufficient evidence of manufacturing activity, and
Accordingly, compare tax liability under normal provisions vs Section 115BAB, or
Require an explicit statement in the question that the company is engaged in manufacturing?
Kindly share your views on how such implicit assumptions should be handled in professional exams like CA Final.
TaxTMI
TaxTMI