Just a moment...

Top
Help
🎉 Festive Offer: Flat 15% off on all plans! →⚡ Don’t Miss Out: Limited-Time Offer →
×

By creating an account you can:

Logo TaxTMI
>
Call Us / Help / Feedback

Contact Us At :

E-mail: [email protected]

Call / WhatsApp at: +91 99117 96707

For more information, Check Contact Us

FAQs :

To know Frequently Asked Questions, Check FAQs

Most Asked Video Tutorials :

For more tutorials, Check Video Tutorials

Submit Feedback/Suggestion :

Email :
Please provide your email address so we can follow up on your feedback.
Category :
Description :
Min 15 characters0/2000
Add to...
You have not created any category. Kindly create one to bookmark this item!
Create New Category
Hide
Title :
Description :
+ Post a Query
Post a New Query
Title :
0/200 char
Description :
Max 0 char
Category :
Delete Reply

Are you sure you want to delete your reply beginning with '' ?

Delete Issue

Are you sure you want to delete your Issue titled: '' ?

Discussion Forum

Back

All Issues

Advanced Search
Reset Filters
Search By:
Search by Text :
Press 'Enter' to add multiple search terms
Select Date:
FromTo
Category :
OR
Search by Issue ID:
NOTE: If you have inputs in both the fields, then results will be shown for issueId first.
Issue ID :

GST Applicability

Ethirajan Parthasarathy

“A”, real estate company enters into agreement with land owner for purchase of land for ₹ 50L and pays advance of say 30 Lacs. Shortly the company finds a buyer for 60 lacs.

Sale deed is directly executed by the land owner to actual buyer with the with 'A' as consenting party for ₹ 60Lacs.

The buyer pays 20Lacs to land owner and 40 lacs to the real estate company.

My queries are

1. Is company liable for GST since what is transferred is not land per se, but only right in the land

2. If the company is liable for GST, is it on 60 lacs or on 10 lacs, being the margin money

3. For purpose of income tax, whether his turnover is 10lacs or 60 lacs

Real Estate Firm's GST Liability on Land Sale: Entire 60 Lakhs or Just 10 Lakh Margin? A real estate company, referred to as 'A,' entered into an agreement with a landowner to purchase land for 50 lakhs, paying an advance of 30 lakhs. Subsequently, 'A' found a buyer for 60 lakhs, with the sale deed executed directly between the landowner and the buyer, while 'A' acted as a consenting party. The buyer paid 20 lakhs to the landowner and 40 lakhs to 'A.' The queries raised were about the company's GST liability-whether it applies to the entire 60 lakhs or just the 10 lakh margin-and the turnover for income tax purposes. The response highlighted the need to clarify whether ownership or merely rights to use/develop the land are transferred, affecting GST applicability. (AI Summary)
answers
Sort by
+ Add A New Reply
Hide
+ Add A New Reply
Hide
Recent Issues