Issues: (i) Whether a PCM had a statutory duty and regulatory visibility to verify TM clients' debit/credit positions before liquidating collateral; (ii) Whether the NCL/MCSGFC could order restitution of liquidated securities; (iii) Whether TM clients could recover from a PCM for the TM's default.

Issue (i): Whether a PCM had a statutory duty and regulatory visibility to verify TM clients' debit/credit positions before liquidating collateral.

Analysis: Under the applicable F&O Regulations and the CM-TM arrangement, a PCM's constituent was the TM. The restrictions on use of client margins required a TM to preserve its individual clients' collateral and prevented a PCM from using one TM's collateral for another TM's dues; they did not impose on a PCM a duty to ascertain the debit/credit position of each individual client of its TM. The reporting regime then in force did not provide real-time client-level position data. The later daily client-level reporting and pledge/re-pledge framework confirmed that such visibility and segregation were introduced subsequently.

Conclusion: A PCM had no statutory duty to verify individual TM-client debit/credit positions before liquidation, and the then applicable regulatory mechanism did not provide such visibility. This issue is decided in favour of the PCMs.

Issue (ii): Whether the NCL/MCSGFC could order restitution of liquidated securities.

Analysis: The statutory byelaw-making power permits fines, expulsion, suspension and like penalties not involving payment of money. Disgorgement powers were expressly vested in SEBI under separate provisions, but no corresponding authority was conferred on a stock exchange, clearing corporation or its committee. An order requiring restoration of securities, or alternatively blocking their value with an additional amount, was monetary in substance and could not be sustained as restitution based on equity where the liquidation was not contrary to the governing regulatory framework.

Conclusion: The NCL/MCSGFC lacked statutory power to direct restitution of the liquidated securities. This issue is decided against the NCL/MCSGFC.

Issue (iii): Whether TM clients could recover from a PCM for the TM's default.

Analysis: The losses resulted from the TM's default and its unauthorised assured-return arrangements, in which the investors had furnished securities as collateral. The PCM neither had privity with those individual clients nor breached a regulatory obligation in liquidating the collateral to meet the TM's unpaid obligations. Any remedies of the affected clients lay against their respective TMs, subject to lawful exceptions.

Conclusion: TM clients cannot lay a claim against a PCM for the TM's default in these circumstances. This issue is decided against the investors.

Final Conclusion: The restitution directions lacked statutory foundation, and the regulatory regime applicable during the relevant period did not shift the TM's client-level obligations or losses to the PCMs.

Ratio Decidendi: A clearing member cannot be subjected to monetary restitution for a trading member's client-level default unless the governing statutory and regulatory framework both imposes the relevant client-level obligation and authorises that remedial power.

Issues: (i) Whether the Railways can be treated as a dealer under the Delhi Sales Tax Act, 1975; (ii) Whether the transfer of rolling stock to the financing corporation constituted sales by the Railways; (iii) Whether sales established between the Railways and the financing corporation were liable to tax in Delhi.

Issue (i): Whether the Railways can be treated as a dealer under the Delhi Sales Tax Act, 1975.

Analysis: The statutory definitions of business and dealer are broad, make profit motive immaterial, and expressly include the Central Government when carrying on the business of selling goods. The Railways' public functions do not confer immunity from sales-tax legislation. Its statutory capacity as a dealer is distinct from whether a particular transaction is a sale.

Conclusion: The Railways can be a dealer under the Delhi Sales Tax Act, 1975. This issue is decided against the assessee.

Issue (ii): Whether the transfer of rolling stock to the financing corporation constituted sales by the Railways.

Analysis: A sale requires transfer for consideration of property that vested in the Railways. Possession, procurement functions and commissioning responsibilities are relevant but not conclusive of title. Where the Railways acted as agent of the financing corporation in procurement from private manufacturers, property passed directly from the manufacturer to the financing corporation and no intermediate sale arose. Conversely, rolling stock manufactured and owned by the Railways, or privately procured by it as principal, was sold when title was transferred to the financing corporation against adjustment of funds advanced by it. Agency could arise without a separate agency fee. An adverse inference from non-production of records could not eliminate the necessary distinction between these legally different classes of transactions.

Conclusion: Transfers of rolling stock previously owned by the Railways constituted sales, whereas stock procured by the Railways on behalf of the financing corporation did not. This issue is partly in favour of the assessee.

Issue (iii): Whether sales established between the Railways and the financing corporation were liable to tax in Delhi.

Analysis: The burden of proving exclusion from levy arises only after a sale is established. The assessee was required to prove, transaction-wise, that the sale occasioned inter-State movement or occurred outside Delhi under the applicable statutory tests. Manufacture, dispatch or subsequent use outside Delhi did not by themselves establish that the sale between the Railways and the financing corporation was an inter-State or outside-State sale. The parties' head-office locations and a lease stipulation deeming appropriation in Delhi were not conclusive, but contemporaneous records could be considered in the absence of contrary transaction-specific material.

Conclusion: Sales established as having been made by the Railways were not proved to be excluded from the Delhi levy. This issue is decided against the assessee.

Final Conclusion: The taxable turnover must be confined to rolling stock owned by the Railways before transfer to the financing corporation, excluding stock procured by the Railways as its agent; classification and computation require assessment-year-wise determination on the stipulated legal basis.

Ratio Decidendi: A financing arrangement for acquisition of goods constitutes a taxable sale only where the intermediary previously held title as principal and transferred that property for consideration; agency procurement does not create an intermediate sale.

Issues: (i) Whether purse-seine vessels may transit State territorial waters to fish in the EEZ under the distinct Union and State regulatory regimes; (ii) Whether pending applications for EEZ Access Passes may be left unprocessed by the State verifying authority.

Issue (i): Whether purse-seine vessels may transit State territorial waters to fish in the EEZ under the distinct Union and State regulatory regimes.

Analysis: Fishing in the EEZ falls within the Union's legislative and executive sphere, whereas fishing in territorial waters is regulated by the State. The EEZ Rules, 2025 provide for Access Passes for EEZ fishing, while the Tamil Nadu Marine Fishing Regulation Rules, 2020 regulate activity within territorial waters. These autonomous regulatory fields do not conflict. Cooperative federalism requires implementation that enables regulated access to the EEZ while preserving the State's power to regulate transit and fishing within territorial waters. The State must designate transit channels under Rules 15(5) and 15(6), with due regard to the Expert Committee's recommendations.

Conclusion: Purse-seine vessels possessing the requisite EEZ permissions may obtain regulated transit access through Tamil Nadu's territorial waters to fish in the EEZ; the State must frame rules or regulations for specified transit channels. This is in favour of the applicants.

Issue (ii): Whether pending applications for EEZ Access Passes may be left unprocessed by the State verifying authority.

Analysis: The Access Pass framework requires coordination between the Union issuing authority and the State verifying authority. Prolonged non-verification of applications defeats the regulatory scheme and, in practical effect, creates an impermissible unwritten prohibition on the pursuit of the applicants' occupation, subject to lawful regulation.

Conclusion: The State must ensure effective, efficient and timely verification and clearance of applications in accordance with the governing rules and regulations. This is in favour of the applicants.

Final Conclusion: The governing Union and State regimes must operate harmoniously to secure lawful, regulated EEZ fishing access and timely regulatory clearances.

Ratio Decidendi: Where Union law regulates fishing in the EEZ and State law regulates territorial waters, their distinct constitutional fields must be implemented cooperatively, and administrative delay cannot operate as an unwritten bar to regulated access.

Issues: (i) Whether reassessment initiated and completed using the old PAN of an amalgamated company was void for having been made against a non-existent entity; (ii) Whether an addition for unexplained unsecured loans could be made in reassessment when no addition was made on the income forming the recorded reason for reopening.

Issue (i): Whether reassessment initiated and completed using the old PAN of an amalgamated company was void for having been made against a non-existent entity.

Analysis: The recorded reasons identified the surviving amalgamated entity and its correct new PAN, while the notices and assessment order used its correct name but retained the old PAN. The reassessment was substantively directed at the surviving entity, which filed the return and participated in the proceedings without confusion or prejudice. Retention of the old PAN was therefore a clerical and procedural defect capable of rectification under Section 292B.

Conclusion: The reassessment was validly made on the amalgamated entity; the old-PAN error did not invalidate jurisdiction or the assessment. This issue is against the assessee.

Issue (ii): Whether an addition for unexplained unsecured loans could be made in reassessment when no addition was made on the income forming the recorded reason for reopening.

Analysis: Reopening was founded on alleged escaped commission income arising from accommodation entries, but no addition was made on that recorded basis. The assessment instead added unsecured loans as unexplained cash credits. Explanation 3 to Section 147 permits consideration of other escaped income but does not permit an addition on a new issue where the original ground for reopening results in no addition.

Conclusion: The unsecured-loan addition was invalid and unsustainable. This issue is in favour of the assessee.

Final Conclusion: The assessment remains jurisdictionally valid against the successor entity, but the addition unrelated to the unassessed recorded reason cannot be sustained.

Issues: (i) Whether deduction for a political contribution made through banking channels could be denied under Section 80GGC of the Income-tax Act, 1961 solely on general search material concerning the recipient political party, without assessee-specific evidence of cash repayment; (ii) Whether an addition under Section 69A of the Income-tax Act, 1961 could be sustained on an inferred cash-back amount without proof that the assessee received or owned unexplained money.

Issue (i): Whether deduction for a political contribution made through banking channels could be denied under Section 80GGC of the Income-tax Act, 1961 solely on general search material concerning the recipient political party, without assessee-specific evidence of cash repayment.

Analysis: Section 80GGC permits deduction for a non-cash contribution to a political party registered under Section 29A of the Representation of the People Act, 1951. The recipient's registered status, the banking-channel payment and the donation receipt stood established. General material concerning an alleged accommodation-entry operation could justify inquiry, but could not prove that this particular donor received cash back without a transactional nexus. The third-party statements and seized material neither identified cash repayment to the assessee nor were shown to have been confronted to the assessee for effective rebuttal.

Conclusion: The deduction under Section 80GGC of the Income-tax Act, 1961 was allowable; the disallowance was unsustainable in favour of the assessee.

Issue (ii): Whether an addition under Section 69A of the Income-tax Act, 1961 could be sustained on an inferred cash-back amount without proof that the assessee received or owned unexplained money.

Analysis: The presumptions under Sections 132(4A) and 292C could not establish receipt of cash by a person from whom the relied-upon material was not found, particularly where the material did not record any such repayment. No cash was found with the assessee, and no statement, document, digital record, intermediary trail, or other evidence established delivery or ownership of the alleged cash amount. Preponderance of probabilities must arise from proved foundational facts and cannot substitute evidence altogether. The Revenue failed to discharge its initial burden under Section 69A.

Conclusion: The addition under Section 69A of the Income-tax Act, 1961 was not sustainable and was deleted in favour of the assessee.

Final Conclusion: In the absence of cogent evidence linking the assessee to an alleged cash-back arrangement, the political-contribution deduction could not be denied and the inferred unexplained-money addition could not be maintained.

Ratio Decidendi: General evidence of an accommodation-entry modus operandi does not establish an assessee's participation or receipt of cash without assessee-specific corroborative material.

Issues: (i) Whether the assessee was eligible for deduction under Section 80P(2)(a)(i) of the Income-tax Act, 1961 despite allegations concerning mutuality, dealings with nominal or non-members, irregularities and diversion of funds; (ii) Whether the matter required restoration for further factual verification; (iii) Whether the protective disallowance sustained by the first appellate authority established a rupture in mutuality.

Issue (i): Whether the assessee was eligible for deduction under Section 80P(2)(a)(i) of the Income-tax Act, 1961 despite allegations concerning mutuality, dealings with nominal or non-members, irregularities and diversion of funds.

Analysis: Section 80P(2)(a)(i) grants deduction for profits attributable to providing credit facilities to members, while Section 80P(4) excludes only a co-operative bank. The assessee was registered as a co-operative society, lacked a Reserve Bank of India banking licence, and no material established the statutory conditions for treating it as a co-operative bank. The statutory deduction could not be denied merely by invoking the general principle of mutuality.

Analysis: The assessment contained no identified non-member, nominal member, fictitious person, transaction, or income attributable to dealings outside membership for the relevant year. Nor did it establish that managerial remuneration was bogus, prohibited, or independently disallowable. Unparticularised allegations and deficiencies in compliance could not displace eligibility for the statutory deduction.

Conclusion: The assessee remained eligible for deduction under Section 80P(2)(a)(i), and Section 80P(4) was inapplicable. The conclusion is in favour of the assessee.

Issue (ii): Whether the matter required restoration for further factual verification.

Analysis: Full opportunity had been available during assessment and appellate proceedings to identify and substantiate the alleged transactions. A further restoration would impermissibly enable a fresh or roving enquiry to supply the missing factual foundation of the assessment, particularly where no specific contrary material was produced.

Conclusion: Restoration for further verification was declined. The conclusion is in favour of the assessee.

Issue (iii): Whether the protective disallowance sustained by the first appellate authority established a rupture in mutuality.

Analysis: The amount was sustained only as a protective measure against unidentified possible nominal-member dealings, although no such member had been proved. The arithmetical inconsistency in the quantified relief was left undisturbed because no challenge to that limited disallowance was made.

Conclusion: The protective disallowance did not amount to an affirmative finding of a rupture in mutuality. The conclusion is in favour of the assessee.

Final Conclusion: The statutory deduction was retained to the extent granted by the first appellate authority, with no basis for further factual enquiry or adverse inference from the limited protective disallowance.

Ratio Decidendi: Eligibility for deduction under Section 80P(2)(a)(i) must be tested against its statutory conditions; generalized allegations of failed mutuality or dealings with non-members, unsupported by identified year-specific facts and attributable income, cannot justify denial of the deduction.

Issues: Whether protection insurance, processing fee and annual maintenance charges paid in relation to bank borrowing for acquisition of a let-out property qualify as interest deductible under section 24(b).

Analysis: Section 24(b) permits deduction of interest on borrowed capital used for acquisition of property. The inclusive definition of interest in section 2(28A) covers service fees and other charges in respect of moneys borrowed, debt incurred or a credit facility. The charges were paid in relation to genuine bank loans used to acquire the let-out property, and their nexus with the borrowing was undisputed. A harmonious reading of these provisions brings such loan-related charges within the scope of interest.

Conclusion: Protection insurance, processing fee and annual maintenance charges paid in respect of the borrowing are deductible as interest under section 24(b), in favour of the assessee.

Issues: Whether penalty for furnishing inaccurate particulars could be sustained where the claim concerning interest on enhanced compensation involved a debatable issue and the penalty order proceeded on an erroneous factual premise.

Analysis: Penalty proceedings were founded on an addition that had not been made in the assessment order. The taxability of interest on enhanced compensation was also subject to divergent judicial views. A claim disallowed in assessment, without more, does not establish furnishing of inaccurate particulars.

Conclusion: The penalty was not sustainable and was deleted, in favour of the assessee.

Issues: (i) Whether reassessment notices for assessment years 2014-15 to 2018-19 were valid where the alleged escaped income was below Rs. 50 lakh; (ii) Whether the assessment for assessment year 2022-23 could be completed directly under Section 143(3) without initiating proceedings under Section 148; (iii) Whether denial of cross-examination vitiated the assessments; (iv) Whether notices issued under Section 148 allowing 30 days to file returns were invalid; (v) Whether the entire value of unaccounted purchases or only the embedded profit was taxable for assessment years 2019-20 to 2021-22.

Issue (i): Whether reassessment notices for assessment years 2014-15 to 2018-19 were valid where the alleged escaped income was below Rs. 50 lakh.

Analysis: For notices issued beyond three years, Section 149(1)(b) requires material revealing income chargeable to tax that has escaped assessment of at least Rs. 50 lakh. The admitted position that the alleged unaccounted purchases generated corresponding sales meant that only the profit embedded in those transactions represented escaped income. That profit was below Rs. 50 lakh in each relevant assessment year.

Conclusion: The reassessment notices for assessment years 2014-15 to 2018-19 were without jurisdiction and were quashed, in favour of the assessee.

Issue (ii): Whether the assessment for assessment year 2022-23 could be completed directly under Section 143(3) without initiating proceedings under Section 148.

Analysis: Material found in a search of a third party was stated to relate to the assessee. Explanation 2(iv) to Section 148 required initiation through the reassessment mechanism, including issuance of notice under Section 148, before an assessment could be made. A direct assessment under Section 143(3) did not follow that mandatory statutory route.

Conclusion: The assessment under Section 143(3) for assessment year 2022-23 was void ab initio and was quashed, in favour of the assessee.

Issue (iii): Whether denial of cross-examination vitiated the assessments.

Analysis: The record did not establish that a specific request for cross-examination of the third party had been made during assessment proceedings. The circumstances differed from those in which the identity or contents of seized material had been specifically disputed and cross-examination expressly sought.

Conclusion: The challenge based on denial of cross-examination was rejected, against the assessee.

Issue (iv): Whether notices issued under Section 148 allowing 30 days to file returns were invalid.

Analysis: Before 1 April 2023, Section 148 permitted the Assessing Officer to prescribe the period for furnishing the return. The statutory requirement of a three-month period was introduced only with effect from 1 April 2023. The notices dated 29 March 2023 were therefore governed by the earlier provision.

Conclusion: The 30-day period prescribed in the notices did not invalidate them, against the assessee.

Issue (v): Whether the entire value of unaccounted purchases or only the embedded profit was taxable for assessment years 2019-20 to 2021-22.

Analysis: The unaccounted purchases were accepted as having resulted in corresponding sales, and a separate addition had already been made for profit from those transactions. Taxing the gross purchases in addition to the profit would not reflect the real income arising from the transactions.

Conclusion: Only the profit embedded in the unaccounted purchases was taxable; deletion of the gross purchase additions and retention of the profit additions was sustained, in favour of the assessee.

Final Conclusion: The reassessment proceedings for assessment years 2014-15 to 2018-19 and the direct assessment for assessment year 2022-23 could not stand, while for assessment years 2019-20 to 2021-22 taxation remained confined to the embedded profit.

Ratio Decidendi: Where alleged unaccounted purchases are accepted as yielding corresponding sales, escaped income for extended reassessment limitation and substantive taxation is confined to the real profit embedded in the transactions, not their gross value.

Issues: (i) Whether income surrendered during survey on account of excess stock and cash was taxable as business income at normal rates or under the enhanced rate prescribed by Section 115BBE; (ii) Whether the disallowance under Section 14A and the ad hoc disallowance of expenditure were sustainable.

Issue (i): Whether income surrendered during survey on account of excess stock and cash was taxable as business income at normal rates or under the enhanced rate prescribed by Section 115BBE.

Analysis: The surrender was consistently recorded and offered as miscellaneous business income, arose from excess stock and cash found at the business premises, and the assessee had no other source of income. The survey statement was required to be read as a whole. The excess stock had nexus with the regular business stock and no independent undisclosed asset or non-business source was identified. Further, the enhanced 60% rate under Section 115BBE was effective from 01.04.2017 and did not govern the assessment year in question.

Conclusion: The surrendered amount was assessable as business income at normal rates, in favour of the assessee.

Issue (ii): Whether the disallowance under Section 14A and the ad hoc disallowance of expenditure were sustainable.

Analysis: The disallowance under Section 14A was computed in accordance with the statutory mandate. The ad hoc disallowance for salaries and wages, power and fuel, and machinery repairs was reasonable in the circumstances.

Conclusion: The disallowance under Section 14A and the ad hoc expenditure disallowance were sustained, against the assessee.

Final Conclusion: The survey surrender is to be assessed under the ordinary business-income regime, while the two disallowances remain undisturbed.

Ratio Decidendi: A survey surrender attributable to excess business stock and cash, consistently admitted as business income and unconnected with any independent undisclosed source, is assessable as business income; an enhanced tax rate cannot be applied before its effective assessment year.

Issues: Whether deduction under Section 80C, omitted from the return of income, could be allowed through rectification of the intimation.

Analysis: Since no deduction was claimed in the return, the intimation under Section 143(1) and the rectification order under Section 154 contained no rectifiable error. However, evidence of the qualifying investment was produced. In the interest of justice, the assessee was directed to seek permission from the Principal Commissioner under Section 119(2)(b) to file a revised return and claim the deduction in accordance with law.

Conclusion: Deduction omitted from the return cannot be granted through rectification; the assessee may pursue the statutory route for permission to file a revised return.

Issues: (i) Whether commission receipts could be assessed without allowing any expenditure and how the income therefrom should be computed; (ii) Whether rejection of the books of account and estimation of profit at 8% on unexplained bank credits were justified.

Issue (i): Whether commission receipts could be assessed without allowing any expenditure and how the income therefrom should be computed.

Analysis: The absence of an agreement, explanation of services, and evidence linking the claimed indirect expenses exclusively to commission receipts did not support deduction of the entire claimed expenditure. However, the admitted receipt of commission could not be treated as having generated no expenditure. Presumptive computation at 50% of the commission receipts under Section 44ADA was considered appropriate.

Conclusion: Income from the commission receipts shall be computed at 50% of the receipts under Section 44ADA of the Income-tax Act, 1961, in favour of the assessee.

Issue (ii): Whether rejection of the books of account and estimation of profit at 8% on unexplained bank credits were justified.

Analysis: Sales disclosed in the accounts were substantially lower than the bank credits, and no explanation was furnished for the balance credits. The books were therefore unreliable, and estimation of profit at 8% on those credits under the presumptive basis was justified.

Conclusion: Rejection of the books of account and estimation of profit at 8% on the bank credits are sustained, against the assessee.

Final Conclusion: Commission income requires recomputation on a 50% presumptive basis, while the estimated income from the unexplained bank credits remains sustained.

Ratio Decidendi: Where commission receipts are accepted but the claimed expenditure is not proved to be exclusively attributable to them, income may be computed on the applicable presumptive basis rather than by denying all expenditure.

Issues: Whether, for Assessment Year 2025-26, the rebate under the first proviso to section 87A could be restricted by excluding tax payable on short-term capital gains taxable under section 111A.

Analysis: For Assessment Year 2025-26, the first proviso to section 87A granted rebate where total income did not exceed Rs. 7,00,000, without expressly excluding tax on short-term capital gains chargeable under section 111A. Section 111A prescribed a special tax rate but did not prohibit rebate from the resulting income-tax. The later amendment restricting rebate to tax computed at the rates under section 115BAC(1A) was expressly effective from 1 April 2026 and could not govern the preceding assessment year. An administrative circular or return-processing utility could not impose a substantive restriction absent from the applicable statute.

Conclusion: The assessee was entitled to the full rebate of Rs. 25,000 under section 87A for Assessment Year 2025-26 notwithstanding the short-term capital gains taxable under section 111A; the restriction of rebate and consequential demand were unsustainable.

Issues: (i) Whether default under the Cash Credit Facility occurred within or outside the period protected by Section 10A; (ii) Whether default under the Ad-Hoc Cash Credit Facility occurred within or outside the period protected by Section 10A; (iii) Whether amended dates of default or subsequently relied-on events could sustain admission of the Section 7 application.

Issue (i): Whether default under the Cash Credit Facility occurred within or outside the period protected by Section 10A.

Analysis: Under Section 3(12) of the Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code, 2016, default requires non-payment of a debt that is cumulatively due and presently payable. The Cash Credit facility was repayable on demand under the governing contractual terms, but no demand had been made before the alleged date of 10.03.2020. Recovery of interest on cash credit facilities stood deferred under the applicable RBI COVID-19 directions from 01.03.2020 to 31.08.2020. The distinction between moratorium for term loans and deferment for cash credit facilities did not displace the requirement that the debt must be presently payable to constitute default. The subsequent conversion of interest into FITL, renewal of the facility, and contemporaneous banking records also did not support the asserted default date.

Conclusion: The alleged Cash Credit default of 10.03.2020 was not established; the relevant default fell within the Section 10A protected period, in favour of the Appellant.

Issue (ii): Whether default under the Ad-Hoc Cash Credit Facility occurred within or outside the period protected by Section 10A.

Analysis: The facility was to be adjusted within 90 days from the date of availment. Applying Section 9 of the General Clauses Act, 1897, the date of availment was excluded, making 25.03.2020 the last day for adjustment and 26.03.2020 the earliest date on which non-payment could become overdue. This computation was supported by the contemporaneous bank communication and the earlier recorded position in the proceedings. The Bank's calculation treating the availment date as the first day, and thereby fixing default on 24.03.2020, was unsustainable.

Conclusion: Default under the Ad-Hoc Cash Credit Facility arose on 26.03.2020 within the Section 10A protected period and could not found CIRP, in favour of the Appellant.

Issue (iii): Whether amended dates of default or subsequently relied-on events could sustain admission of the Section 7 application.

Analysis: Amendment of a Section 7 application is permissible in principle, but a substituted default date must be supported by the record. Where Section 10A applies, the precise date of default is decisive because the statutory prohibition is permanent for defaults arising in the protected period. The amended dates, introduced after the Section 10A objection, were not supported by the contractual and contemporaneous material. Later demand and recall notices, or subsequent non-payment, could not supply an alternative basis where they were not pleaded as the relevant defaults in the amended application.

Conclusion: The amended dates and unpleaded subsequent events could not sustain admission of the Section 7 application, in favour of the Appellant.

Final Conclusion: The defaults relied upon for initiating CIRP arose during the period permanently protected by Section 10A, and the Section 7 application could not be maintained on the substituted or alternative bases relied upon.

Ratio Decidendi: For application of Section 10A, a financial creditor must establish a debt that was both due and presently payable under Section 3(12); where contractual payment is deferred and the resulting default arises in the protected period, CIRP cannot be initiated for that default.

Issues: Whether refund of service tax paid on services used for authorised operations of a Special Economic Zone unit can be denied solely for breach of the six-month limitation stipulated in Notification No. 9/2009-ST dated 03.03.2009.

Analysis: The substantive exemption for taxable services used for authorised operations flows from Section 26(1)(e) of the Special Economic Zones Act, 2005. Section 51 of that Act gives it overriding effect over inconsistent enactments. The refund mechanism under the notification is procedural; its limitation condition cannot be applied so as to wholly defeat the statutory exemption where the use of services for authorised operations and substantive eligibility are undisputed. The authorities concerning refunds governed exclusively by notifications were distinguishable because entitlement here arose directly under the Special Economic Zones Act, 2005.

Conclusion: Refund cannot be rejected solely because the claim was filed beyond the six-month period under Notification No. 9/2009-ST dated 03.03.2009; the issue is decided in favour of the assessee.

Issues: (i) Whether codeine-based cough syrup within the quantitative limits in Entry 35 of the notification dated 14.11.1985 attracts the NDPS Act when dealt with by a drug licence holder for medicinal use; (ii) Whether such cough syrup attracts the NDPS Act when stocked, sold or transported for intoxication or another non-medicinal purpose; (iii) Whether the respective applicants were entitled to bail on the material attributed to them.

Issue (i): Whether codeine-based cough syrup within the quantitative limits in Entry 35 of the notification dated 14.11.1985 attracts the NDPS Act when dealt with by a drug licence holder for medicinal use.

Analysis: Codeine is an opium derivative and ordinarily a manufactured drug, but Entry 35 excludes a preparation compounded with other ingredients, containing no more than 100 mg per dosage unit and no more than 2.5% concentration, which has been established in therapeutic practice. The expression concerns the established therapeutic character of the preparation, not the end-user's individual use. A codeine cough syrup satisfying these conditions and dealt with in the ordinary medicinal trade by a valid licence holder is outside the category of manufactured drug. A routine retail sale without a prescription may breach the Drugs and Cosmetics regulatory regime, but does not by itself invoke the NDPS Act absent material indicating knowledge of diversion to non-medicinal use.

Conclusion: A qualifying codeine-based cough syrup sold, stocked or transported by a licence holder for medicinal use is not a narcotic substance under the NDPS Act.

Issue (ii): Whether such cough syrup attracts the NDPS Act when stocked, sold or transported for intoxication or another non-medicinal purpose.

Analysis: The statutory exception is available only where the preparation is genuinely dealt with for medical or scientific purposes and consistently with the applicable licensing requirements. The NDPS Act operates in addition to the Drugs and Cosmetics Act; a licence does not protect dealings involving deliberate diversion of a codeine preparation for intoxication. Large-scale diversion, fictitious documentation or entities, absence of actual delivery or stock, forged transport records, and other material indicating non-medicinal trafficking may establish that the exemption is unavailable. Where the NDPS Act applies, the weight of the entire syrup mixture is considered in determining small or commercial quantity.

Conclusion: A qualifying codeine cough syrup knowingly stored, sold or transported for intoxication or another non-medicinal purpose is treated as a codeine preparation and manufactured drug attracting the NDPS Act.

Issue (iii): Whether the respective applicants were entitled to bail on the material attributed to them.

Analysis: Bail was assessed individually without deciding guilt. Bail was justified where the material did not prima facie establish conscious possession, knowledge of concealed contents, actual involvement in diversion, or participation in a trafficking conspiracy beyond unsupported confessional statements or weak circumstantial material. Bail was refused where the record prima facie disclosed organised diversion of very large quantities through fictitious firms, false invoices or transport records, unexplained financial routing, forged documentation, or other evidence of intended non-medicinal distribution.

Conclusion: Bail was granted to applicants against whom prima facie material of conscious involvement in non-medicinal trafficking was insufficient, and refused to applicants against whom such material was prima facie established.

Final Conclusion: The statutory exemption protects genuine medicinal dealings in qualifying codeine cough syrup, but cannot be used to shield its knowing diversion for intoxication; the individual applications were resolved according to the strength of the respective prima facie material.

Ratio Decidendi: A codeine preparation within Entry 35 remains outside the NDPS Act only while it is genuinely dealt with for medical or scientific purposes in accordance with the governing regulatory requirements; knowing diversion for intoxication defeats the exemption.

Issues: (i) Whether the first appellate authority could itself modify the GSTR-3B/GSTR-2A mismatch demand under Section 75(8); (ii) Whether Section 74 could govern the reverse-charge demand where the expenses were disclosed and fraud, wilful misstatement or suppression was not established; (iii) Whether Section 74 applied to input tax credit claimed on invoices issued by non-existent suppliers; and (iv) Whether a consolidated show-cause notice for multiple financial years was permissible under Section 74.

Issue (i): Whether the first appellate authority could itself modify the GSTR-3B/GSTR-2A mismatch demand under Section 75(8).

Analysis: Section 75(8) authorises an appellate authority to modify the tax determined by the proper officer, with consequential modification of interest and penalty. The mismatch liability was computed after verification of GSTR-2A, GSTR-3B and voluntary reversals through DRC-03, and the Revenue had not specifically challenged that computation in its appeal.

Conclusion: The appellate authority validly modified and confirmed the mismatch demand under Section 73; this issue was decided in favour of the assessee.

Issue (ii): Whether Section 74 could govern the reverse-charge demand where the expenses were disclosed and fraud, wilful misstatement or suppression was not established.

Analysis: The accounts and annual financial statements disclosed the relevant expenses. Local conveyance, specified freight, professional charges and travel expenses were found not taxable under reverse charge, leaving only a reduced liability. Suppression for Section 74 requires deliberate non-disclosure to evade tax, which was not established on the disclosed records.

Conclusion: The reduced reverse-charge demand was recoverable under Section 73, not Section 74; this issue was decided in favour of the assessee.

Issue (iii): Whether Section 74 applied to input tax credit claimed on invoices issued by non-existent suppliers.

Analysis: Under Section 155, the claimant bears the burden of establishing entitlement to input tax credit. Invoices and banking payments alone did not establish actual physical movement of goods. The notice contained foundational facts showing that the suppliers were non-existent from registration and had issued invoices without genuine supplies; the absence of delivery evidence and the incorrect self-assessment supported the inference of fraud and wilful misstatement.

Conclusion: The input tax credit demand was enforceable under Section 74 with applicable interest and penalty; this issue was decided in favour of the Revenue.

Issue (iv): Whether a consolidated show-cause notice for multiple financial years was permissible under Section 74.

Analysis: Sections 73 and 74 permit notices and statements for any period or such periods, rather than restricting proceedings to a single financial year. Fraudulent input tax credit transactions may require examination of connected transactions across financial years.

Conclusion: A consolidated show-cause notice covering multiple financial years was legally permissible; this issue was decided in favour of the Revenue.

Final Conclusion: The modified liabilities for the GSTR-3B/GSTR-2A mismatch and reverse-charge demand remain governed by Section 73, whereas the input tax credit demand based on invoices from non-existent suppliers is governed by Section 74; the multi-year notice is valid.

Ratio Decidendi: A claimant of input tax credit must establish genuine receipt and actual physical movement of goods; invoices and banking payments alone do not discharge that burden where the notice discloses foundational facts of fictitious suppliers and fraudulent availment, permitting recourse to Section 74.

Issues: Whether the bail condition requiring security bond equal to the alleged tax and penalty amount should be enforced.

Analysis: The appellant stood on the same footing as the co-accused whose identical condition had been found onerous and incapable of enforcement. An affidavit had disclosed the family assets, which could adequately serve as security.

Conclusion: The condition requiring a security bond equal to the alleged tax and penalty amount shall not be insisted upon; the assets declared by the appellant's mother shall constitute security for the alleged dues.

Issues: Whether an adjudication initiated through a show-cause notice uploaded only under the GST portal's "Additional Notice and Orders" tab, without separate intimation to the assessee, could be sustained where the assessee was thereby unable to submit a reply.

Analysis: Uploading the show-cause notice only in the specified portal tab, without separate intimation, resulted in the assessee being unaware of the notice and unable to respond. The absence of an effective opportunity to reply constituted a violation of the principles of natural justice. In the peculiar facts, judicial interference was warranted.

Conclusion: The show-cause notice, adjudication order, and consequential notices were quashed for violation of principles of natural justice, with fresh adjudication to follow after issuance of a fresh notice and opportunity of hearing.

Issues: Whether an adjudication proceeding initiated through a show cause notice uploaded only under the 'Additional Notice and Orders' tab, without separate intimation to the taxpayer, violated principles of natural justice.

Analysis: The show cause notice was uploaded only in the specified portal tab and no separate intimation was issued. The taxpayer consequently remained unable to respond before the adjudication order was passed. This denial of a meaningful opportunity to answer the notice constituted a breach of principles of natural justice.

Conclusion: The show cause notice and adjudication order were quashed for violation of principles of natural justice, with liberty to commence fresh adjudication after issuing a fresh notice and granting an opportunity of personal hearing.